The_MoUsY_spell_checker's Advice Column

About The_MoUsY_spell_checker

I first signed up because I saw really simple computer questions with no answers, and I just had to answer them. Today, my column still has more answers to questions about computers than anything else, but feel free to ask about anything. I can follow up on questions too.

I have been the featured columnist on 16 October 2005, 01 May 2006, 18 December 2007, 12 July 2008, 02 February 2009, 08 March 2009, 24 May 2009, 29 September 2009, 12 November 2009, 05 January 2010, 06 January 2010, and 26 April 2010.

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Gender: Male
Location: Sydney
Member Since: August 7, 2004
Answers: 1004
Last Update: May 14, 2015
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im asking this out of sheer curiosity.

if it is possible for a man to love a woman or a man to love a man or a women, a women. is it possible for a man or a women to not be interested in either?
it would be quite hard to find this i think because of our basic primal instincts to love or lust for another's attention or company.

its one of those things were my mind thinks about it. then agrees with it, then thinks about it again to only get confused. what do you think? i would like to have some very explanitable and scientific answers. Thanks

Yes, it's possible. One can be interested in the opposite sex, the same sex, both, or neither. One who isn't attracted to either gender is asexual (not to be confused with asexual reproduction). It is a relatively uncommon orientation. There are statistics that say only about 1% of the human population is asexual.

Do keep in mind that "love" can refer to different kinds of love, and also note that even romantic love and sexual attraction can be separate. (I hope this doesn't just make it even more confusing.)

For more information on asexuality, try the Asexual Visibility and Education Network. Link here: http://www.asexuality.org/home/
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(5) no you made it very clear great answer thanks :D


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