Hi.Thanks for your prompt answer.You still haven't answered my question though.Who defined fornication as premarital sex?Leviticus chapter 18-what does that mean to you?And...a couple of verses from leviticus chapter 19.Was premarital sex included in that?Well,if you check out Corinthians,where Apostle Paul was talking about getting married instead of burning.Burning here means having the desire for sex and yet not having sex.So,as pointed,getting married was for the sole purpose of relieving yourself of the burden of sexual desire,but it always doesn't end there.You should love the person.And hey,i didn't say it's not right for married people to have sex when ever they want to,please don't get me wrong.I'm saying we all have the same physiology.If one person,married,has the same sexual desire an unmarried person also has,why should one be counted a prerequisite for ''sin'',and the other,a blessing?Check out every other commandment in the BIBLE.It address everyone,whether old,young,married,single,male,female,parents,kids...and so on.Anyways,thanks for the message.I'll like to read from you anytime you can write.GOD BLESS!
According to Websters Dictionary, fornication is: voluntary sexual intercourse between two unmarried persons or two persons not married to each other. So noone decided to make it mean that, the word itself means that. As far as Paul goes when he says it is better to marry or to burn it has nothing to do with passion burning. It has to do with if we know to do good and do it not to him it is sin. In other words if you want to fornicate by the definition above then you are in danger of hellfire (the burning that Paul mentioned). As far at the scriptures in Leviticus I will look those up and give you a better answer but that will at least answer in part what you were asking. God Bless
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